Sunday, 22 March 2020

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SAT Biology


SAT Biology Subject Tests Ecological (Biology-E) and Molecular (Biology-M) are used by colleges to help them make admission decisions. Different colleges require different SAT Biology Subject Test (Ecological and Molecular) for different types of academic programs.
SAT BIOLOGY TEST PATTERN
  • Number of Questions: 80
  • Time Allowed: 1 hour
  • Test Type: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
    All questions have five answer choices.
TWO TYPE OF SAT BIOLOGY
1. SAT Biology Ecological (Biology-E)
2. SAT Biology Molecular (Biology-M)

SAT Biology Ecological (Biology-E)


Students must consult colleges (their websites) to determine which type of SAT Biology Subject Test (Ecological or Molecular) is required.
SAT Biology Ecological (Biology-E) Test Format
  • Number of Questions: 80
  • Time Allowed: 1 hour
  • Test Type: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
    All questions have five answer choices.
Syllabus: SAT Biology Ecological (Biology-E)
Cellular and molecular biology – 15%
Cell structure and organization, mitosis, photosynthesis, cellular respiration, enzymes, biosynthesis, biological chemistry.
Ecology – 23%
Energy flow, nutrient cycles, populations, communities, ecosystems, biomes, conservation biology, biodiversity, effects of human intervention.
Genetics – 15%
Meiosis, Mendelian genetics, inheritance patterns, molecular genetics, population genetics.
Organismal biology – 25%
Structure, function, and development of organisms (with emphasis on plants and animals), animal behavior.
Evolution and diversity – 22%
Origin of life, evidence of evolution, patterns of evolution, natural selection, speciation, classification and diversity of organisms.

SAT Biology Sample Paper


1. Which of the groups below represents the correct relationship in order from smallest (or simplest) to largest (or more complex)?
(A) matter-element-compound-electron-atom
(B) electron-element-atom-compound-matter
(C) electron-atom-element-matter-compound
(D) electron-atom-element-compound-matter
(E) none of these
2. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) The product of transcription is DNA
(B) The product of transcription is mRNA
(C) The product of transcription is a protein
(D) The product of translation is mRNA
(E) both (A) and (C)
3. What defines the Sahara Desert as a desert?
(A) It is characterized by very hot temperatures
(B) The growing season is very short
(C) Cacti make up the dominant form of vegetation
(D) It is very dry
(E) none of these
4. Which of the following descriptions of a DNA molecule is NOT correct?
(A) Synthesis is semiconservative
(B) Opposite strands are antiparallel
(C) The number of cytosines present is roughly equal to the number of uracils
(D) It contains the sugar deoxyribose
(E) all are correct
5. What trophic level is represented by the snake?
(A) decomposer
(B) primary consumer
(C) secondary consumer
(D) producer
(E) tertiary consumer
6. In the Eastern United States, many forested areas were cleared for agricultural purposes. If cultivation was abandoned in those areas, they would eventually return to forests. This is an example of
(A) primary succession
(B) secondary succession
(C) decomposition
(D) interspecific competition
(E) both (B) and (D)
7. Which of the following represents an example of Mullerian mimicry?
(A) Two unrelated poisonous frog species that share the same habitat also resemble each other in coloration
(B) The coloration of the canyon tree frog allows it to blend in with the granite rocks among which it lives
(C) When disturbed, the larva of the hawkmoth puffs up its head and thorax such that it resembles the head of a small poisonous snake
(D) In some orchid species, the flowers resemble female moths and attract male moths that attempt to mate with them, contributing to pollination in the process
(E) both (B) and (A)
8. A human cell that contains 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome must be
(A) a zygote
(B) a somatic cell of a male
(C) a somatic cell of female
(D) an egg cell
(E) a sperm cell
9. Which of the following events DO NOT lead to genetic variation in a population?
(A) independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis
(B) crossing over between homologous chromosomes during meiosis II
(C) crossing over between homologous chromosomes during meiosis I
(D) random mutation
(E) both (C) and (D)
10. A special form of loose connective tissue that pads and insulates the body and stores fuel reserves is known as
(A) epithelial tissue
(B) adipose tissue
(C) fibrous connective tissue
(D) muscle tissue
(E) both (A) and (D)
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY SAMPLE PAPER
1. D
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. E
6. B
7. A
8. E
9. B
10. B
11. All of the following ideas are essential to Charles Darwin theory of natural selection EXCEPT
(A) individuals tend to produce more offspring than can survive
(B) variation is present in all populations
(C) characteristics acquired by one parent can be passed on to their offspring
(D) resources are usually limited
(E) those individuals who produce the most fertile offspring are the most fit
12. The secondary structure of proteins whose conformation may be an alpha helix is due to
(A) the hydrogen bonds between a carbonyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another
(B) the hydrogen bonds between variable groups
(C) the interactions between hydrophobic and hydrophilic variable groups
(D) the interactions between the positively and negatively charged variable groups
(E) all of the above
13. A student cut a 2 cm3 block out of a potato and massed the block. She then placed the block in distilled water and waited an hour. If she remassed the block she could expect which of the following?
(A) the mass to increase due to plasmolysis
(B) the mass to increase because the potato is hypertonic to the water
(C) the mass to decrease because the potato will loose its water
(D) the mass to decrease because of the higher water potential in the potato
(E) the mass to remain the same because there are no living components in this system
14. Red-green colorblindness in humans is a sex-linked trait. If a woman with normal vision, whose father was colorblind, married a man whose mother was colorblind, what would be the probability of their first child being a colorblind girl?
(A) 0 percent
(B) 12.5 percent
(C) 25 percent
(D) 50 percent
(E) 100 percent
15. What are the number of different types of gametes that can be produced by an organism whose genotype is AaBbCcDd?
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
(E) 16
16. The number of chromosomes in normal humans is 46. After meiosis in sperm production, the number of chromosomes I would be _________ and the number of resulting cells would be ________.
(A) 46, 2
(B) 23, 2
(C) 46, 1
(D) 23, 1
(E) 23, 4
17. Which statement is NOT true for ferns?
(A) The gametophyte is larger than the sporophyte
(B) The sori give rise to the gametophytes
(C) Eggs are fertilized by sperm in the archegonia
(D) Ferns possess vascular tissue for the transport of water and minerals
(E) Male gametes depend on water for fertilization
18. In symbiotic relationships, groups of two or more organisms live in physical proximity. Which of the following types of symbiosis depicts commensalism?
(A) A little bird riding on the back of a rhino, picking parasites off the back of the rhino
(B) Undertaker bees removing dead bees from the hive of worker bees
(C) A wrasse cleaning the parasites off the gills of a bigger fish
(D) An egret riding on the back of a cow, looking for food in cow patties
(E) All of the above are commensalistic
19. Competition between members of a prairie dog population could be expected to increase as a result of an increase in the
(A) spread of disease among the prairie dogs
(B) prairie dog intrinsic reproductive rate
(C) mortality rate of prairie dogs
(D) natality rate of prairie dog predators
(E) number of secondary consumers
20. The rain shadow effect is used to describe rainfall around certain mountain ranges. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) The northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere have the same prevailing winds
(B) Cool air can hold more moisture than warm air
(C) In the northern hemisphere, there is more rainfall on the eastern slopes
(D) You would expect deserts to form on the western side of mountain ranges in the northern hemisphere
(E) None of the above statements are true
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY SAMPLE QUESTIONS
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. E
16. A
17. A
18. D
19. B
20. E
21. The enzyme that assimilates carbon dioxide into the Calvin cycle is known as
(A) rubisco
(B) pepco
(C) catalase
(D) PEP carboxylase
(E) malate hydrogenase
22. The separation of plant pigments using paper chromatography is based on
(A) the non-polarity of the solvents and pigments
(B) the polarity of the paper
(C) the polarity of the pigments
(D) all of the above
(E) none of the above
23. Organisms are placed in different trophic levels according to how they obtain their energy. Another name for primary consumer is
(A) green plant
(B) herbivore
(C) carnivore
(D) omnivore
(E) decomposer
24. Some organisms living in a vacant lot include grass, dandelions, mice, grasshoppers, and slugs. Collectively these organisms represent
(A) an ecosystem
(B) a community
(C) a population
(D) a mutualism
(E) a biome
25. Darwin’s finches are a group of about twelve species of birds that live on the Galapagos Islands. The fact that they have different size beaks is regarded as a consequence of
(A) genetic drift
(B) coevolution
(C) competition
(D) chance
(E) behavioral modification
26. Predators in an ecosystem
(A) help the community by keeping the number of prey from outstripping their resources
(B) help the prey population by removing the sick and less fit individuals
(C) enhance species diversity
(D) reduce the possibility of competitive exclusion
(E) all of the above
27. A walking stick, a type of insect that is a primary consumer, is an example of an organism using
(A) aggressive mimicry
(B) Batesian mimicry
(C) camouflage
(D) Mullerian mimicry
(E) none of the above
28. The buildup of pesticides in ospreys is known as
(A) biological magnification
(B) food web dynamics
(C) succession
(D) keystone predation
(E) none of the above
29. An organism with the genotype AaVv can produce how many different types of gametes
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 8
30. In four-o-clocks, pink flowers are the result of a red allele and a white allele for the color gene. If you crossed a white with a pink, what would be the most likely result?
(A) 20 red and 20 pink
(B) 40 pink
(C) 20 red and 20 white
(D) 20 pink and 20 white
(E) 40 white
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY (ECOLOGICAL) SAMPLE PAPER
21. A
22. D
23. B
24. B
25. C
26. E
27. C
28. A
29. C
30. D
31. Donald Johanson, Tom Gray, and others discovered a hominid that lived in East Africa__________ million years ago and nicknamed her Lucy, whose scientific name they gave as __________
(A) 35, Homo habilis
(B) 3.5, Homo africanus
(C) 5.5, Australopithecus africanus
(D) 3.0, Australopithecus afarensis
(E) 5.5, Australopithecus boisei
32. Ammonia is released from dead plants by
(A) denitrifying bacteria
(B) nitrogen-fixing bacteria
(C) bacteria of decay
(D) nitrifying bacteria
(E) none of the above
33. In a natural community, all the living things that directly or indirectly affect the environment are known as
(A) pioneer organisms
(B) keystone species
(C) secondary consumers
(D) climatic factors
(E) biotic factors
34. In order to preserve the biosphere for future generations, humans must
(A) make use of technology to develop new herbicides
(B) put all wild animals in game preserves
(C) explore ways to drain and fill wetlands along the seacoast
(D) understand how living things interact with their environment
(E) settle more people inland, away from the coasts
35. Which group can best be described as a population?
(A) all the honeybees in an orchard in one spring
(B) all the plants and animals in a forest
(C) the living and nonliving factors in a meadow
(D) the life in Earth’s atmosphere
(E) all the buffalo in 1840
36. Competition between the members of a woodchuck population in a large field could be expected to increase as a result of an increase in the
(A) woodchuck reproduction rate
(B) spread of disease among the woodchucks
(C) number of woodchucks killed by cars
(D) number of secondary consumers
(E) natality rate of their predators
37. Let r stand for the intrinsic rate of growth, N for the number of organisms in a population, and K for the carrying capacity. A good formula for logistic growth would be?
(A) rN (N-K)/K
(B) rN (N-r)/rK
(C) rK (K-N)/rN
(D) rK (r-N)/K
(E) rN (K-N)/K
38. Mimicry is an important biotic factor in communities all over the world. For instance, viceroy butterflies closely resemble (mimic) monarch butterflies. Birds that eat viceroys enjoy a good meal, but those that eat monarchs retch right away. What type of mimicry does this describe?
(A) Mullerian
(B) aggressive
(C) crypsis
(D) Batesian
(E) deflection
39. Probably the world’s most pressing ecological problem is
(A) destruction of the rain forests
(B) human overpopulation
(C) depletion of natural resources
(D) over-fishing the oceans
(E) global warming
40. Predators are beneficial to communities because
(A) they control the prey population growth
(B) they practice predation harvest
(C) predators enhance species diversity
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) (A), (B), and (C)
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY (ECOLOGICAL) SAMPLE PAPER
31. D
32. C
33. E
34. D
35. A
36. A
37. E
38. D
39. B
40. E
41. Gymnosperms are NOT
(A) seed plants
(B) predominantly diploid
(C) flowering plants
(D) conifers
(E) naked seed plants
42. Viruses are
(A) always viewed with a light microscope
(B) are an enzyme-nucleus mix
(C) obligate, intracellular parasites
(D) cellular
(E) host independent
43. An invertebrate is found in a freshwater setting and studies show it to have three developmental body layers and a cuticle covering its outer body. It belongs in the same phylum as the
(A) hydra
(B) leeches
(C) sea stars
(D) sponges
(E) crustaceans
44. Bile
(A) activates pancreatic lipases
(B) emulsifies fat droplets
(C) congeals fat droplets
(D) digests fats
(E) is produced in the pancreas
45. Which of the following enzymes acts on protein?
(A) pepsin
(B) ptyalin
(C) amylase
(D) maltase
(E) sucrase
46. Digestion in protozoans is
(A) extracellular
(B) intracellular
(C) intercellular
(D) dorsal
(E) none of the above
47. Which of the following is true about the blood?
(A) Arteries carry oxygen-rich blood
(B) Arteries carry oxygen-poor blood
(C) Veins carry oxygen-rich blood
(D) Veins carry oxygen-poor blood
(E) None of the above is true
48. Chemical digestion begins in the
(A) mouth
(B) esophagus
(C) stomach
(D) gall bladder
(E) small intestine
49. In a heterozygous monohybrid cross, the dominant trait can be expressed in the phenotype of the F1 ________ of the time.
(A) 0 percent
(B) 25 percent
(C) 33 percent
(D) 75 percent
(E) 100 percent
50. Which of the following would be the result of a true dihybrid cross?
(A) AABB
(B) AABb
(C) AaBb
(D) AaBB
(E) aaBb
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY (E) SAMPLE PAPER
41. C
42. C
43. E
44. B
45. A
46. B
47. E
48. A
49. D
50. C
51. Tissue that lines the outer and inner surfaces of the body in protective sheets of tightly packed cells is known as
(A) nervous tissue
(B) adipose tissue
(C) connective tissue
(D) smooth muscle
(E) epithelial tissue
52. The organ system that functions in exchanging gases with the environment is known as the
(A) digestive system
(B) respiratory system
(C) circulatory system
(D) endocrine system
(E) integumentary system
53. Which of the following statements is NOT part of Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
(A) Individuals that are best adapted to their environment tend to pass on heritable advantageous characteristics to their offspring
(B) Genetic variation exists among individuals in a population
(C) The size of most populations remains relatively constant, despite the fact that more offspring are produced than are needed to maintain it
(D) Early settlers saved seed only from the most productive crop plants to plant the following year
(E) both a and d
54. A tetraploid individual would have
(A) four copies of each chromosome
(B) two copies of each chromosome
(C) one copy of each chromosome
(D) four copies of a single chromosome
(E) six copies of each chromosome
55. Which of the following best describes the relationship between a population and a species?
(A) A species is one type of population
(B) A species is a local subset of a population
(C) A population is a group of organisms occupying a specific area
(D) The terms population and species are interchangeable
(E) none of these
56. The number of individuals in a population that the environment can just maintain with no net increase or decrease from generation to generation is known as
(A) the dispersion pattern
(B) the habitat cap
(C) the exponential growth curve
(D) the carrying capacity
(E) both a and b
57. Which of the following pairs of figures would you need to know to determine the population density of elk living in Rocky Mountain National Park?
(A) the number of elk living in the park and the area of land encompassed by the park
(B) the birth rate of the elk population and whether population growth is logistic or exponential
(C) the birth rate of the elk population and the area of land encompassed by the park
(D) the number of elk living in the park and the dispersion pattern of the elk population
(E) both b and d
58. A small isolated population found on a remote island is more likely to undergo speciation than a large widespread population because a small isolated population
(A) inherently contains much greater genetic diversity
(B) is more susceptible to genetic drift
(C) is more readily adaptable to extreme environmental changes
(D) is more likely to migrate to other islands or the nearest mainland
(E) none of these
59. Two snails in the same class must also be in the same
(A) genus
(B) order
(C) area
(D) species
(E) phylum
60. Which of the following represents the correct order of eras, from most ancient to most recent, along the geological time scale?
(A) paleozoic-precambrian-mesozoic-cenozoic
(B) precambrian-paleozoic-mesozoic-cenozoic
(C) precambrian-mesozoic-paleozoic-cenozoic
(D) cenozoic-mesozoic-paleozoic-precambrian
(E) none of these
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY PRACTICE TEST
51. E
52. B
53. D
54. A
55. C
56. D
57. A
58. B
59. E
60. B
61. Monocotyledons and dicotyledons are the two subdivisions of flowering plants. Monocotyledons are distinguished from dicotyledons because monocots possess
(A) floral structures in multiples of fours and fives
(B) long taproots and parallel venation in their leaves
(C) netted leaf venation and floral structures in multiples of three
(D) parallel leaf venation and fibrous roots
(E) floral structures in multiples of three and long taproots
62. Which of the following statements is true concerning plants that utilize C4 photosynthesis?
(A) They only open their stomates at night
(B) They use bundle sheath cells to separate the Calvin cycle from the atmosphere
(C) They use rubisco (ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase oxygenase) to capture carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
(D) They use lenticels exclusively for gaseous exchange in order to conserve water
(E) All of the above are true
63. Neurotransmitters have as their effectors cells such as
(A) nerves
(B) muscles
(C) glands
(D) all of the above
(E) none of the above
64. Neurotransmitters cross the synapse after being released from the
(A) dendrites
(B) axons
(C) cell bodies
(D) all of the above
(E) none of the above
65. Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with its description?
(A) tundra coniferous trees in a cold, dry climate
(B) taiga cold areas with low, mat-like vegetation
(C) tropical deciduous forests-the biome with the most precipitation
(D) chaparral-wetlands with many shrubs and ruminants
(E) savanna-grassland with three distinct climates, based mainly on rain
66. Mimicry always involves a model and a mimic as well as a dupe or signal receiver (the organism the mimic is trying to fool). Which of the following depicts Batesian mimicry?
(A) a walking stick (a herbivore) sitting on a branch of a tree
(B) a rat snake (nonpoisonous) that looks like a poisonous species
(C) an oppossum playing possum
(D) a spider that looks like an ant
(E) a flounder that blends in with the bottom to avoid being eaten
67. Two organisms that occupy many of the same niches are most likely
(A) competitors
(B) predator-prey
(C) host-parasite
(D) mutualistic partners
(E) commensalistic partners
68. Lynn Margulis’s endosymbiotant theory is supported by the fact(s) that
(A) mitochondrial DNA is more like that of bacteria than the nuclear DNA in human cells
(B) chloroplasts replicate on their own time schedule, not under nuclear control
(C) mitochondria and chloroplasts are about the same size as prokaryotes
(D) all of the above
(E) none of the above
69. People who suffer from meningitis are having an inflammation around their
(A) coronary arteries
(B) pleural cavities
(C) membranes of the spinal cord
(D) kidneys
(E) intestine
70. Which is the correct sequence of events during embryonic development?
(A) cleavage-differentiation-fertilization-gastrulation
(B) fertilization-differentiation-cleavage-gastrulation
(C) differentiation-fertilization-gastrulation-cleavage
(D) fertilization-cleavage-gastrulation-differentiation
(E) fertilization-gastrulation-differentiation-cleavage
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS
61. D
62. B
63. D
64. B
65. E
66. B
67. A
68. D
69. C
70. B
71. In the development of a frog embryo, Speman’s primary organizer was found to be the
(A) dorsal ectoderm
(B) dorsal lip of the blastopore
(C) archenteron
(D) neural tube
(E) notochord
72. Choose the one statement that is true from among the following.
(A) FSH is produced in the ovaries and causes maturation of the follicle
(B) LH is produced in the pituitary gland and causes ovulation
(C) Estrogen is produced in the anterior pituitary gland and causes the endometrium to thicken
(D) Progesterone is produced in the posterior pituitary gland and causes the endometrium to thicken
(E) None of the above statements are true
73. If 9 percent of all cicadas exhibit the homozygous recessive condition known as “flippant wings,” what is the gene frequency for that gene in the general population?
(A) cannot be determined
(B) 91 percent
(C) 0.9
(D) 0.3
(E) 0.03
74. The wings of a bird and those of an insect are a good example of
(A) adaptive radiation
(B) coevolution
(C) convergent evolution
(D) all of the above
(E) none of the above
75. Which one of the following lists contains an organism that does NOT belong in that phylum?
(A) jellyfish, coral, anemone, starfish
(B) tunicates, birds, sharks, man
(C) bats, dogs, cats, sloths
(D) liver fluke, planaria, tapeworm, flatworms
(E) clam, squid, nautilus, snail
76. Choose the most Darwinian reason to describe how camels came to have flat, broad hooves.
(A) The camels that ventured further into the desert acquired broader feet, which were passed along to their offspring
(B) Those animals that had the broadest hooves were the most attractive to the opposite sex
(C) The animals that had the broadest hooves were able to travel farther and find water more easily than those that could not and subsequently perished
(D) Those animals with the broadest feet are descended from the camels that got broad feet from stomping out the forest fires that created the desert in the first place
(E) In the game of life, random events will move evolution toward the most successful adaptations possible
77. The age of the Earth is about __________ years, and life has existed on the Earth for __________ years.
(A) 3.5 billion, 2.5 billion
(B) 3.5 billion, 1.5 billion
(C) 15 billion, 3.5 billion
(D) 4.5 billion, 600 million
(E) 4.5 billion, 3.5 billion
78. Which of the following could be used to study evolution?
(A) DNA hybridization
(B) RFLPs
(C) structural homologies
(D) fossils
(E) all of the above
79. Which of the following is (are) a domain(s)?
I. Eukaryota
II. Archaebacteria
III. Eubacteria
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I, II, and III
(E) I and III
80. Which of the following organisms lacks a coelom?
(A) roundworms
(B) segmented worms
(C) clams
(D) grasshoppers
(E) people
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY (ECOLOGICAL) PRACTICE TEST
71. B
72. B
73. D
74. C
75. A
76. C
77. E
78. E
79. D
80. A
81. Which of the following biomes is characterized by the driest conditions?
(A) tundra
(B) taiga
(C) temperate deciduous forest
(D) grasslands
(E) tropical rain forest
82. All of the following are associated with mating behavior EXCEPT
(A) aggressive behavior
(B) releaser pheromones
(C) search image
(D) territoriality
(E) visual communication
83. Which of the following organisms in the food chain has the largest biomass?
(A) plants
(B) grasshopper
(C) mouse
(D) owl
(E) snake
84. Which of the following is an instinct?
(A) habituation
(B) caring for offspring
(C) operant conditioning
(D) associative behavior
(E) observational learning
85. Which of the following is the specialized absorptive structure in the intestine?
(A) alveoli
(B) villi
(C) Bowman’s capsule
(D) salivary glands
(E) pyloric sphincter
86. Which of the following tissues contains the highest number of mitochondria?
(A) nervous
(B) skin
(C) connective
(D) muscle
(E) bone
87. The skeletal system does all of the following EXCEPT
(A) support
(B) transport
(C) protect
(D) digest
(E) store
88. Endocrine glands
(A) secrete vitamins
(B) cease functioning after adolescence
(C) begin functioning in adolescence
(D) have ducts
(E) have no ducts
89. In flowering plants, sperm are produced by the
(A) ovary
(B) anther
(C) microsporangium
(D) sporophyte
(E) generative nucleus
90. Which of the following is not a type of plant stem?
(A) node
(B) corn
(C) rhizome
(D) tendril
(E) tuber
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY E/M PRACTICE TEST
81. A
82. C
83. A
84. B
85. B
86. D
87. D
88. E
89. B
90. A
91. Which of the following is a product of cyclic photophosphorylation?
(A) carbon dioxide
(B) oxygen
(C) ATP
(D) NAD+
(E) Acetyl CoA
92. The role of oxygen in aerobic respiration is
(A) to couple with C to form CO2 in chemiosmosis
(B) to form ATP
(C) to contribute H+ to the Kreb’s cycle
(D) to make PGAL
(E) to accept electrons from the Electron Support Chain
93. Photosynthesis is
(A) light driven
(B) photo driven
(C) anabolic
(D) enzyme moderated
(E) all of the above
94. Identify the correct eukaryotic cell cycle.
(A) G1 to S to G2 to M to cytokinesis
(B) G1 to G2 to M to S to mitosis
(C) G1 to G2 to S to M to karyokinesis
(D) S to G1 to G2 to M to cytokinesis
(E) G2 to M to S to G1 to cytokinesis
95. Which of the following is NOT involved in the synthesis of proteins?
(A) rough ER
(B) smooth ER
(C) Golgi body
(D) ribosomes
(E) RNA
96. Which of the following stages of the cell cycle occurs immediately prior to mitosis?
(A) G1
(B) G2
(C) S
(D) M
(E) cytokinesis
97. Which of the following produces ATP during aerobic respiration?
(A) chloroplast
(B) nucleus
(C) ER
(D) mitochondrion
(E) ribosomes
98. If the concentration of a solute differs across a membrane permeable only to water, water will move across the membrane by
(A) facilitated transport
(B) osmosis
(C) phagocytosis
(D) active transport
(E) exocytosis
99. The ______________ is a rigid structure that gives the cell support in plants.
(A) vacuole
(B) cell wall
(C) microfilament
(D) nucleus
(E) centriole
100. Which of the following often distinguishes plant cells from animal cells?
(A) centrioles
(B) nucleus
(C) chromatin
(D) rough ER
(E) bilayer plasma membrane
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY ECOLOGICAL (E) PRACTICE TEST
91. C
92. E
93. E
94. A
95. B
96. B
97. D
98. B
99. B
100. A

SAT Biology Molecular (Biology-M)


Students must consult colleges (their websites) to determine which type of SAT Biology Subject Test (Ecological or Molecular) is required.
SAT Biology Molecular (Biology-M) Test Format
  • Number of Questions: 80
  • Time Allowed: 1 hour
  • Test Type: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
    All questions have five answer choices.
Syllabus: SAT Biology Molecular (Biology-M)
Cellular and molecular biology – 27%
Cell structure and organization, mitosis, photosynthesis, cellular respiration, enzymes, biosynthesis, biological chemistry.
Ecology – 13%
Energy flow, nutrient cycles, populations, communities, ecosystems, biomes, conservation biology, biodiversity, effects of human intervention.
Genetics – 20%
Meiosis, Mendelian genetics, inheritance patterns, molecular genetics, population genetics.
Organismal biology – 25%
Structure, function, and development of organisms (with emphasis on plants and animals), animal behavior.
Evolution and diversity – 15%
Origin of life, evidence of evolution, patterns of evolution, natural selection, speciation, classification and diversity of organisms.

SAT Biology Molecular (Biology-M) Sample Test


1. In human DNA, adenine (A) makes up approximately 30.9% of the bases, and guanine (G) makes up approximately 19.9% of the bases; therefore the percentage thymine (T) and cytosine (C) are
(A) 29.4% T and 19.8% C
(B) 29.8% T and 29.8% C
(C) 19.8% T and 19.8% C
(D) 19.8% T and 29.4% C
(E) 24.9% T and 18.2% C
2. If the chromosomes of a eukaryotic cell were lacking telomerase, the cell would
(A) have a greater potential to become cancerous than one with telomerase
(B) become increasingly shorter with each cycle of replication
(C) not produce okazaki fragments
(D) be unable to take up extraneous DNA from the surrounding solution
(E) produce okazaki fragments
3. Which of the following statements concerning transcription and translation in eukaryotic cells is NOT correct?
(A) Transcription results in the production of mRNA, whereas translation results in the production of polypeptides
(B) Transcription occurs in the nucleus, whereas translation occurs in the cytoplasm
(C) Transcription uses DNA as a template, whereas translation uses mRNA as a template
(D) Transcription results in the production of polypeptides, whereas translation results in the production of mRNA
(E) both (B) and (D)
4. The open, less compacted form of DNA that is available for transcription is known as the
(A) chromatin
(B) heterochromatin
(C) promotor
(D) operator
(E) euchromatin
5. A sequence on a DNA molecule that recognizes specific transcription factors that can stimulate transcription of nearby genes is known as the
(A) promotor
(B) operator
(C) enhancer
(D) euchromatin
(E) none of these
6. During the stage in which insertion of eukaryotic DNA into the plasmid vector occurs, the sticky ends formed by digestion of both DNA types with the same restriction enzyme may join in a recombinant molecule because
(A) the eukaryotic DNA and plasmid DNA will have the same sequence
(B) the eukaryotic DNA and plasmid DNA will have complementary sequences
(C) the plasmid DNA can join with any eukaryotic DNA, regardless of sequence
(D) the plasmid DNA and the eukaryotic DNA cannot join together due to differences in the structure of their DNA molecules
(E) both (B) and (C)
7. Which of the following statements is NOT true of restriction enzymes?
(A) Restriction enzymes protect their bacterial host against intruding foreign DNA from viruses or other bacterial cells
(B) Most restriction enzymes are named after the bacterial organism from which they were first isolated
(C) Each restriction enzyme recognizes a specific sequence of bases on the DNA molecule
(D) Each restriction enzyme cuts at random locations along the DNA molecule
(E) all are correct
8. The uptake of naked DNA from solution by bacterial cells is known as
(A) transcription
(B) electroporation
(C) transduction
(D) translation
(E) transformation
9. The classification of organisms into kingdoms has come under debate in recent years, with most of the debate focused on the
(A) algae and fungi
(B) prokaryotes and simple eukaryotes
(C) algae and plants
(D) fungi and plants
(E) none of these
10. In the steps leading up to the origin of life on earth, early protobionts could not have evolved into living cells without both
(A) competition for resources and the development of hereditary mechanisms
(B) a semipermeable membrane and a nucleus
(C) a semipermeable membrane and the ability to catalyze chemical reactions
(D) a nucleus and the ability to catalyze chemical reactions
(E) both (A) and (D)
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY SAMPLE TEST
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. E
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. E
9. B
10. A
11. Which of the following statements about the lac operon is NOT true?
(A) RNA polymerase can be blocked by an active repressor protein attached to the operator
(B) RNA polymerase attaches at a site on the DNA strand, known as the promoter
(C) There is a regulatory gene that is downstream from the structural genes that can inhibit transcription
(D) The regulatory gene produces the active repressor
(E) The repressor protein can be activated by a substance like lactose, called the inducer
12. Which of the following statements about the HIV virus is NOT true?
(A) The viral nucleotides contain ribose
(B) HIV contains uracil, not thymine
(C) HIV infection begins with the entrance of the virus into the host when the gp 120 and gp 41 function to pull the virus across the plasma membrane
(D) HIV makes the host cell produce reverse transcriptase
(E) Immunization against HIV has proven difficult because the virus mutates so rapidly
13. All of the following are means of posttranscriptional control in eukaryotes EXCEPT
(A) the capping of the 58 end with a modified guanosine triphosphate
(B) the addition of a poly-A tail to the 38 end
(C) the cutting out of introns by a spliceosome
(D) the ligation of exons by DNA polymerase
(E) the attachment of signal sequences for direction to specific destinations
14. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)?
(A) Suspects whose fragments do not match any other fragments at a crime scene can be vindicated
(B) The polymerase chain reaction can be used to produce more copies of DNA obtained at a crime scene before RFLP analysis
(C) Most RFLPs use radioactive probes
(D) Most RFLPs occur because of the repetitive nature of DNA
(E) With the advent of PCR technology, restriction enzymes are no longer needed to perform RFLP analysis
15. The number of tRNA molecules required by eukaryotic organisms to ferry around the amino acids is
(A) 64
(B) 63
(C) 45
(D) 23
(E) 20
16. A student using a compound microscope with a 10X ocular lens and a 4X objective lens measured his field of view with a plastic ruler and found it to be 4 mm. He then placed some of his cheek cells on a slide, found them using the 4X objective lens and switched to the 40X objective lens. He counted twelve cells, side by side, that stretched from one side of the field of view to the other. What is the best estimate for the diameter of a cheek cell?
(A) 0.033 mm
(B) 0.132 mm
(C) 0.0132 mm
(D) 0.0033 mm
(E) 1.32 mm
17. In fruit flies, the gray body color is dominant to the black, and long wings are dominant to short. If you crossed a gray, short-winged fly to a black, long-winged fly and got 25 percent gray, long wing; 25 percent gray, short wing; 25 percent black, short wing; and 25 percent black, long wing, what were the genotypes of the parental flies?
(A) Ggll and GgLl
(B) Ggll and ggLl
(C) GGll and ggLl
(D) GGll and GgLl
(E) Ggll and ggLL
18. Which of the following statements about mitochondria is (are) true?
(A) Mitochondria exist in all eukaryotes
(B) Mitochondria exist in bacteria and plants
(C) Mitochondria exist in animals, plants, and fungi
(D) Both (B) and (C) are true
(E) Both (A) and (C) are true
19. The flowing cytoplasm of an active amoeba is
(A) propelled by microfilaments for lipid synthesis
(B) an adaptation for extracellular digestion
(C) composed of microtubules and extracellular matrix
(D) dependent on microfilaments for intracellular circulation
(E) required for nerve transmission
20. In the earthworm, the efficiency of food absorption is increased by the presence of
(A) the liver, which stores extra food in addition to making metabolic enzymes
(B) the cecum, which stores unsuitable intake for excretion
(C) infolds, which add surface area to the intestine
(D) malphigian tubules, which increase the density of the food
(E) the liver, which absorbs excess sugar and stores it as glycogen
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS
11. C
12. D
13. D
14. E
15. C
16. A
17. B
18. E
19. D
20. C
21. A consensus sequence is associated with __________, while a signal sequence is part of __________.
(A) translation, hnRNAs
(B) DNA, translation
(C) transcription, a snurp
(D) hnRNA, a snurp
(E) spliceosomes, translation
22. One would expect to find steroid hormone receptors in the
(A) plasma membrane
(B) endoplasmic reticulum
(C) nucleus
(D) cytosol
(E) none of the above
23. Plants produce energy in their
I. cytosol
II. mitochondria
III. chloroplast
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II and III
(E) I, II, and III
24. Select the correct order of events in a person’s response to a bacterial infection:
(A) macrophage ingestion – Helper T cell activation – B cell activation – clonal formation
(B) clonal formation – Helper T cell activation – B cell activation – macrophage ingestion
(C) macrophage ingestion – B cell activation – T helper cell activation – clonal formation
(D) Helper T cell activation – B cell activation – macrophage ingestion – clonal formation
(E) B cell activation – T helper cell activation – clonal formation – macrophage ingestion
25. People who have an extra X chromosome could have gotten it through
(A) non-disjunction
(B) transposition
(C) transduction
(D) crossing over
(E) all of the above
26. The HIV virus infects mostly
(A) complement cells
(B) red blood cells
(C) T-killer cells
(D) T-helper cells
(E) all of the above
27. Which of the following functions can be attributed to DNA polymerase?
(A) It replaces RNA nucleotides with DNA nucleotides
(B) It fixes errors in the replication of DNA
(C) It ads nucleotides to the growing chain at the 3′ end
(D) It is used in the polymerase chain reaction
(E) All of the above are true
28. During translation, the first amino acid
(A) occupies the aminyl site first, then the peptidyl site
(B) occupies the aminyl site before the attachment of the large portion of the ribosome
(C) of the polypeptide chain is methionine
(D) all of the above
(E) none of the above
29. A signal sequence
(A) is a sequence of DNA that begins transcription
(B) is a sequence of RNA that is spliced out in the nucleus
(C) is a sequence of DNA that directs a protein to certain organelles
(D) is a sequence of DNA that attracts transcription factors
(E) is the sequence of tRNA that bonds with the codon of mRNA at the ribosome
30. Northern blotting is used with
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) hnRNA
(D) ssDNA
(E) all of the above
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY (MOLECULAR) SAMPLE PAPER
21. E
22. C
23. E
24. A
25. A
26. D
27. E
28. C
29. C
30. B
31. One would expect to find reverse transcriptase in
(A) the plasmids of competent cells
(B) retrovisuses
(C) purple sulfur bacteria
(D) plasmodia
(E) archaebacteria
32. The target tissue for parathyroid hormone is (are) the
(A) kidneys
(B) bones
(C) small intestine
(D) all of the above
(E) none of the above
33. The products of oxidative phosphorylation are
(A) oxygen and water
(B) NADH and ATP
(C) water and ATP
(D) pyruvate and NADPH
(E) oxygen and NADH
34. A major difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria is that the former has
(A) a liposaccharide outer covering with a small peptidoglycan component in the cell wall
(B) a small peptidoglycan component covering a large liposaccharide base
(C) a large peptidoglycan component in the cell wall
(D) a cell wall composed of liposaccharide and chitin
(E) a cell wall composed of chitin over peptidoglycan
35. Let X represent an atom and X* its radioactive isotope. Assume both are taken up by living organisms. If the half-life of X* is 4,000 years, how much X* will be present in the remains of an organism that is 16,000 years old
(A) as much as a living organism
(B) 4 times as much
(C) one-fourth as much
(D) one-sixteenth
(E) indeterminate given the lack of climatic data
36. All of our cells contain protooncogenes that may turn into oncogenes, which are cancer genes. The best explanation for protooncogenes is that they
(A) came into our cells from a viral infection of our ancestors
(B) arose from plasmids that have been inserted into bacteria and now reside in us
(C) are DNA “junk” with no known function
(D) turn into oncogenes as we age
(E) help regulate cell division
37. In genetic engineering, it is necessary to cut DNA out of bacteria and eukaryotes. To insert the human insulin gene into a bacteria, one should use
(A) two different restriction enzymes so that the pieces would not reanneal
(B) the same restriction enzyme so that both pieces will have the same sticky ends
(C) methylated bacterial DNA so that only some of it will be spliced
(D) two different ligases to reanneal the DNA
(E) a hot water bath at 55 degrees centigrade so that the reaction will happen faster
38. Watson and Crick used all of the following information in elucidating the physical structure of DNA EXCEPT
(A) the Meselson-Stahl experiment
(B) X-ray crystallography
(C) Chargoff’s rules
(D) the different sizes of purines and pyrimidines
(E) the transforming principle of Avery et al
39. Which of the following organelles is out of order from an endomembrane point of view?
(A) nucleus
(B) vesicles
(C) golgi apparatus
(D) endoplasmic reticulum
(E) plasma membrane
40. The products of the light reactions, or photophosphorylation, in photosynthesis are
(A) oxygen and water
(B) oxygen and ATP
(C) oxygen, ATP, and NADPH
(D) water, ATP, and NADPH
(E) water, ATP
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY E/M (MOLECULAR) SAMPLE TEST
31. B
32. D
33. C
34. C
35. D
36. E
37. B
38. A
39. D
40. C
41. __________ refers to one gene affecting many traits.
(A) Polygenesis
(B) Pleiotropy
(C) Linkage
(D) Epistasis
(E) Nondisjunction
42. Which of the following blood types are possible if the parents are A and O blood types?
(A) A and O
(B) B and O
(C) AB only
(D) O only
(E) A, B, and O
43. The portion of the DNA molecule that can vary is its
(A) sugar
(B) base
(C) deoxyribose
(D) ribose
(E) phosphate
44. An mRNA is 429 nucleotides long. The number of amino acids in the polypeptide chain formed from this mRNA is
(A) 143
(B) 142
(C) 141
(D) 429
(E) 428
45. Which of the following is NOT consistent with Griffith’s experiments?
(A) injected mixture of R-strain and live S-strain: mouse dies
(B) injected S-strain: mouse dies
(C) injected heat-killed S-strain: mouse lives
(D) injected R-strain: mouse lives
(E) injected mixture of heat-killed S-strain and live R-strain: mouse lives
46. Which of the following is a semi-conservative process?
(A) DNA replication
(B) non-disjunction
(C) translation
(D) transcription
(E) crossing over
47. Which of the following is true about enzymes?
(A) They always work alone
(B) They are consumed in a reaction
(C) They are amino acid polymers
(D) They always require a coenzyme
(E) They are classified as inorganic catalysts
48. Which of the following has a vitamin as a building block?
(A) apoenzyme
(B) alloenzyme
(C) metallic ion
(D) lipoprotein
(E) coenzyme
49. Which enzyme would the microbes in the gut of a termite need to have in order to metabolize the cell walls of the wood that termites eat?
(A) cellulase
(B) esterase
(C) protease
(D) pepsin
(E) trypsin
50. The reds, oranges, and yellows of the leaves of deciduous trees that become evident in the fall are from
(A) carotenoids
(B) ATP
(C) leaf decay
(D) chlorophylls
(E) overabundance of water
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY MOLECULAR (M) SAMPLE PAPER
41. B
42. A
43. B
44. B
45. E
46. A
47. C
48. E
49. A
50. A
51. Which of the following base substitution mutations in the mRNA above would have the least effect on the resulting polypeptide?
(A) substitution of UCC for UUC in Phe
(B) substitution of CAA for CCA in Pro
(C) substitution of CAC for CAG in Gln
(D) substitution of GGA for GGU in Gly
(E) both a and c
52. The pattern of DNA fragments resulting from restriction enzyme digestion of genomic DNA from two species of skunk with EcoRI show extensive similarities. This suggests that
(A) most of the restrictions sites recognized by EcoRI are found at approximately the same distances apart in the DNA from both skunk species
(B) the two skunks must be the same species, not different species
(C) restriction enzyme digestion with EcoRI produces the same pattern of DNA fragments in all organisms
(D) the genetic makeup of the two skunk species is identical
(E) both b and d
53. Restriction enzyme digestion with HindIII of genomic DNA from three toad species (A, B, and C) revealed that species A and B each produced unique fragment patterns, whereas species C shared fragments with both species A and species B. These results suggest that
(A) species C is a hybrid between species A and species B
(B) the DNA sample from species C must have been contaminated
(C) species C is the most recent living ancestor of both species A and species B
(D) species C served as an outgroup for the study
(E) both a and c
54. One of the earliest theories pertaining to the origin of life on earth suggested that life began in shallow pools. Recent studies have led to extensive debate regarding the origin of life, with some researchers suggesting that life may have originated
(A) as viral particles
(B) in volcanoes
(C) in mudflats
(D) from naked strands of RNA
(E) near deep sea vents
55. The number of base pairs in a typical bacterium is about __________, while the number in human cells is around __________.
(A) 3,000, 3 million
(B) 1 million, 1 billion
(C) 3 million, 3 billion
(D) 1 billion, 12 trillion
(E) 2 million,3 billion
56. The proteins around which human DNA is wound are
(A) cyclins
(B) heat shock proteins
(C) G-proteins
(D) methylated protein
(E) histones
57. The proteins that come together to form “maturation promoting factors,” or “M phase factors,” are
(A) cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases
(B) cyclin-dependent kinases and G proteins
(C) cyclins
(D) G-proteins
(E) sulphur containing proteins
58. Restriction enzymes were originally isolated from
(A) viruses, which use them to cut bacterial DNA
(B) bacteria, which use them to cut viral DNA
(C) viruses, which use them to turn off their host bacterial DNA
(D) protists, which use them to organize themselves into colonial life-forms
(E) both a and d
59. If a restriction enzyme has as its recognition sequence “ATCCTA,” how many restriction sites would appear in the lambda genome, which is approximately 54,000 bp?
(A) 2,250
(B) 9000
(C) 13
(D) 7
(E) 9
60. Which enzyme(s) should be used to insert the human sequence into the plasmid?
(A) ERA I
(B) CRO I
(C) MEM II
(D) CRO I and ERA I
(E) both a and b
ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY PRACTICE PAPER
51. D
52. A
53. A
54. E
55. C
56. E
57. A
58. B
59. C
60. A


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