Monday 8 April 2019

Computer Science MCQs



Computer Science MCQs


Computer Science multiple choice questions (MCQs) Page-1. Find answers to the questions at the bottom of the page.

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1. The major language of World Wide Web is
(A) HTML
(B) PHP
(C) ASP.NET
(D) Java
2. HTML is an abbreviation for?
(A) HiTech Meaningful Language
(B) HyperText Meaningful Language
(C) HiTech Markup Language
(D) HyperText Markup Language
3. ___________ is a device from where the information is sent.
(A) Transmitter
(B) Spreadsheet
(C) Simulation
(D) Modulation
4. __________ is a mathematical model of a real system in the form of a computer program.
(A) Transmitter
(B) Spreadsheet
(C) Simulation
(D) Modulation
5. LAN is an abbreviation for?
(A) Large Access Network
(B) Local Access Network
(C) Large Area Network
(D) Local Area Network
6. In peer-to-peer networking,
(A) there is only one server and many clients
(B) there is only one client and many servers
(C) every computer is capable of playing the role of server
(D) every computer is capable of playing the role of client, server or both at the same time
7. URL is an abbreviation for?
(A) Universal Resource Locator
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) Universal Resource Location
(D) Uniform Resource Location
8. The network in which we connect each node to the network along a single piece of network cable is called
(A) Bus Network Topology
(B) Star Network Topology
(C) Ring Network Topology
(D) None of these
9. The network in which we connect each network node to a central device (hub) is called
(A) Bus Network Topology
(B) Star Network Topology
(C) Ring Network Topology
(D) None of these
10. FTP is an abbreviation for?
(A) File Transfer Position
(B) File Transfer Protection
(C) File Transfer Protocol
(D) File Transfer Possibility
ANSWERS: COMPUTER SCIENCE MCQS
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. C

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Economics Quizzes


Economics multiple choice questions (MCQs) Page-3. These quizzes are from fundamentals of Economics. Find answers to the questions at the bottom of the page.

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21. When one event occurred before another event, the fallacy in economic reasoning that the first event caused the second event is called
(A) the post hoc fallacy
(B) failure to hold other things constant
(C) the fallacy of composition
(D) normative fallacy
22. When we assume that what is true for the part is also true for the whole, we are committing
(A) the post hoc fallacy
(B) failure to hold other things constant
(C) the fallacy of composition
(D) normative fallacy
23. The three fundamental economic problems every human society must confront and resolve are
(A) what, how and when
(B) what, where and when
(C) what, how, and for whom
(D) how, where, and for whom
24. The three fundamental economic problems of what, how, and for whom are solved by
(A) supply
(B) demand
(C) consumption
(D) markets
25. Fiscal policy consists of government’s
(A) revenue and taxation
(B) taxation and credit control
(C) expenditure and investment
(D) expenditure and taxation
26. The maximum quantity of goods that can be efficiently produced by an economy using its scarce resources and available technology is called
(A) the supply curve
(B) the demand curve
(C) production-possibility frontier
(D) the supply-demand equilibrium
27. Which economic term is used to measure the overall performance of an economy?
(A) GDP
(B) GNP
(C) Gini
(D) HDI
28. Productive efficiency occurs when an economy cannot produce _____ of one good without producing _____ of another good.
(A) more, more
(B) more, less
(C) less, less
(D) none of these
29. The concept of invisible hand in the organization of supply and demand in a well-functioning market mechanism refers to the
(A) self-regulating economy
(B) government-controlled economy
(C) command economy
(D) socialism
30. The increase in economic integration among nations is termed as
(A) specialization
(B) market economy
(C) globalization
(D) equilibrium condition
ANSWERS: ECONOMICS QUIZZES
21. A
22. C
23. C
24. D
25. D
26. C
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. C

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Economics Quiz


Economics multiple choice questions (MCQs) Page-2. These quizzes are from fundamentals of Economics. Find answers to the questions at the bottom of the page.

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11. The branch of economics concerned with overall performance of the economy is known as
(A) Microeconomics
(B) Macroeconomics
(C) Econometrics
(D) Keynesian Economics
12. The branch of economics concerned with the use of statistical methods to obtain empirical results for economic relations is known as
(A) Microeconomics
(B) Macroeconomics
(C) Econometrics
(D) Keynesian Economics
13. The branch of economics concerned with the behavior of markets, firms, and households is known as
(A) Microeconomics
(B) Macroeconomics
(C) Econometrics
(D) Bayesian Economics
14. An economy is producing efficiently when no individual’s economic welfare can be improved unless
(A) supply is increased
(B) demand is increased
(C) someone else is improved
(D) someone else is made worse off
15. Taxes are used to discourage __________ of a commodity.
(A) consumption
(B) production
(C) saving
(D) inflation
16. Subsidies are used to encourage __________ of a commodity.
(A) consumption
(B) production
(C) saving
(D) inflation
17. Which from the following economic resources cannot be converted into commodity?
(A) Land
(B) Labour
(C) Capital
(D) All of these can be converted into commodity
18. Which from the following are features of a modern economy?
(A) Specialization
(B) Division of Labor
(C) Financial Markets
(D) All of the above
19. When no firm or consumer is large enough to affect the market price, the market is assumed to have
(A) perfect competition
(B) imperfect competition
(C) no competition
(D) none of these
20. Which from the following are the results of imperfect competition in the markets?
(A) Monopolies
(B) Externalities
(C) Public goods
(D) All of the above
ANSWERS: ECONOMICS QUIZ
11. B
12. C
13. A
14. D
15. A
16. B
17. B
18. D
19. A
20. D

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Economics MCQs



Economics MCQs


Economics multiple choice questions (MCQs) Page-1. These MCQs are from fundamentals of Economics. Find answers to the questions at the bottom of the page.

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1. The fundamental concept of Economics about resources is that the resources are
(A) equally distributed
(B) unequally distributed
(C) scarce
(D) unlimited
2. Consider a world without scarcity of resources. Then what would be the consequences?
(A) All prices would be zero
(B) Markets would be unnecessary
(C) Economics would no longer be a useful subject
(D) All of the above
3. Who is considered the founder of Microeconomics?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) John Keynes
(C) Friedrich Hayek
(D) Milton Friedman
4. Who is considered the founder of modern Macroeconomics?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) John Keynes
(C) Friedrich Hayek
(D) Milton Friedman
5. When analyzing the impact of a variable on the economic system, the other things
(A) must be kept constant
(B) must also be analyzed
(C) must not be taken into consideration
(D) none of these
6. Inputs are combined with technology to produce outputs. The fundamental inputs (also called factors of production) are
(A) land and capital
(B) land and labor
(C) land, labor, and capital
(D) land, labor, capital, and investment
7. Goods produced to produce yet other goods is called
(A) final goods
(B) capital
(C) investment
(D) resources
8. Which economic term is used to represent inequality in income distribution?
(A) GDP
(B) GNP
(C) Gini
(D) HDI
9. The value of the good or service forgone by choosing another investment is called
(A) opportunity cost
(B) purchasing power parity
(C) disposable income
(D) consumer price index
10. The central role of markets is to determine the
(A) quality of goods
(B) quantity of goods
(C) level of income
(D) price of goods
ANSWERS: ECONOMICS MCQS
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. D

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Sunday 7 April 2019


Finance Questions


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81. Which from the following statements is incorrect?
(A) A European option can only be exercised at expiry
(B) An American option can only be exercised at expiry
(C) A European option is a right but not obligation
(D) An American option is a right but not obligation
82. An agreement on a telephone or email to buy/sell an asset at an agreed future time for an agreed price is called
(A) spot contract
(B) forward contract
(C) future contract
(D) swap
83. When forward contract is traded on an exchange, it is called
(A) spot contract
(B) future contract
(C) call option
(D) put option
84. On 1 January you enter a contract to buy 1 million barrel of oil for $80 per barrel to be delivered on 1 March. The price on 1 March is $82 per barrel. Your gain is
(A) $200
(B) $20000
(C) $200000
(D) $2000000
85. Allocating stock in popular new issues to manager of their important corporate clients is called
(A) subscription
(B) under-performance
(C) rights
(D) spinning
86. Which from the following issues has the lowest total direct cost?
(A) straight bonds
(B) corporate stocks
(C) all issues have same cost
(D) none of these
87. An option that allows the underwriter to increase the number of shares bought by 15% is called
(A) spread
(B) spinning
(C) whiteshoe
(D) greenshoe
88. A four year zero-coupon bond has 6% yield. What is its duration in years?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
89. Changes in interest rates have a __________ impact on the prices of long-term bonds than the short-term bonds.
(A) greater
(B) smaller
(C) both have same impact
(D) interest rate does not matter
90. An investment of $9,000 today will yield $10,000 after one year. What is the Net Present Value if the interest rate is 10%?
(A) $71
(B) $81
(C) $91
(D) $101
ANSWERS: FINANCE QUESTIONS
81. B
82. B
83. B
84. D
85. D
86. A
87. D
88. A
89. A
90. C

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Corporate Finance Multiple Choice Questions


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71. The difference between the public-offer price and the price paid by the underwriter is called
(A) underpricing
(B) spread
(C) commission
(D) margin
72. The underwriters receive their payments in the shape of
(A) underpricing
(B) spread
(C) commission
(D) margin
73. Rights issues are for
(A) managers
(B) directors
(C) existing shareholders
(D) new shareholders
74. The interest rate earned if a financial asset is held until its maturity is called
(A) term structure
(B) spinning
(C) yield
(D) spread
75. The price of a stock is $100, and it could be $95 or $115 the next year. What is the expected return?
(A) 5%
(B) 6%
(C) 7%
(D) 7.5%
76. The price of a stock is $100, and there are 40% chances that it would be $95 and 60% chances that it would be $115 the next year. What is the expected return?
(A) 5%
(B) 6%
(C) 7%
(D) 7.5%
77. A company’s agreement with the underwriter include
(A) spread
(B) greenshoe option
(C) A and B
(D) whiteshoe option
78. The long-run returns of Initial Public Offerings (IPOs) tend to __________ the market.
(A) underperform
(B) accelerate
(C) amplify
(D) none of these
79. Spread is __________ for IPOs.
(A) highest
(B) lowest
(C) average
(D) uncertain
80. The value of a financial derivative depends on the
(A) maturity
(B) duration
(C) forward interest rate
(D) underlying
ANSWERS: CORPORATE FINANCE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
71. B
72. B
73. C
74. C
75. A
76. C
77. C
78. A
79. A
80. D

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Finance Multiple Choice Questions


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61. The success of a new company critically depends on
(A) managers
(B) board of directors
(C) shareholders
(D) venture capitalists
62. Companies go public in order to
(A) avoid taxes
(B) reduce management cost
(C) raise more cash
(D) get merge
63. Companies go public with the help of
(A) venture capital firms
(B) underwriters
(C) shareholders
(D) A, B and C
64. If beta of a stock is __________ then it tends to amplify the overall market movement.
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) greater than 1
(D) between 0 and 1
65. What is the real rate of interest if nominal rate is 10% and inflation rate is 5%?
(A) 4.3%
(B) 4.8%
(C) 5.3%
(D) 5.8%
66. The relationship between short and long term interest rates is called __________ of interest rates.
(A) yield to maturity
(B) duration
(C) volatility
(D) term structure
67. Financial managers are interested in __________ when see bond market.
(A) yield to maturity
(B) duration
(C) volatility
(D) term structure
68. Underwriters are also called
(A) bookrunner
(B) venture capitalists
(C) subscribers
(D) angel investors
69. Which from the following is not the role of an underwriter?
(A) They provide procedural and financial advice
(B) They buy the issue
(C) They resell the issue to the public
(D) They provide funds to the corporation
70. Risk __________ with the duration of bond.
(A) remains same
(B) increases
(C) decreases
(D) multiplied
ANSWERS: FINANCE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
61. A
62. C
63. B
64. C
65. B
66. D
67. A
68. A
69. D
70. B

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Corporate Finance MCQs


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51. If two firms in the same line of business merge together, it is called __________ merger.
(A) horizontal
(B) vertical
(C) straight
(D) conglomerate
52. If two firms at different stages of production merge together, it is called __________ merger.
(A) horizontal
(B) vertical
(C) straight
(D) conglomerate
53. If two firms in unrelated line of business merge together, it is called __________ merger.
(A) horizontal
(B) vertical
(C) straight
(D) conglomerate
54. The measure for calculating how much two random variable change together is called
(A) variance
(B) covariance
(C) skewness
(D) kurtosis
55. The normalized version of covariance is called
(A) regression
(B) correlation
(C) cross-section
(D) spread
56. Suppose our portfolio consists of two stocks A and B. What should be the correlation between them so that we have no risk in our portfolio?
(A) –1
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) risk cannot be eliminated
57. In the beginning, some companies receive equity investment from wealthy individuals. The wealthy individuals are called
(A) angel investors
(B) corporate investors
(C) venture capitalists
(D) venture capital firms
58. Firms that invest in new companies as they try to grow are called
(A) spinning
(B) underwriters
(C) venture capitalists
(D) venture capital firms
59. An investor will receive $5,000 and $10,000 after one and two years from today respectively. If the interest rate during this period is 10% then what is the present value of this cash flow?
(A) $12000
(B) $12450
(C) $12810
(D) $13705
60. What is volatility if the duration of a bond is 4 years and yield to maturity is 8%?
(A) 3.1%
(B) 3.4%
(C) 3.7%
(D) 4.0%
ANSWERS: CORPORATE FINANCE MCQS
51. A
52. B
53. D
54. B
55. B
56. A
57. A
58. D
59. C
60. C

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Corporate Finance Quizzes


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41. The contribution of an individual security to the risk of a well-diversified portfolio is measured by?
(A) beta
(B) variance
(C) standard deviation
(D) CAPM
42. The sensitivity of an asset to the market movements is called
(A) beta
(B) variance
(C) standard deviation
(D) CAPM
43. The average beta of all stocks in a market is
(A) –1
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 1.5
44. If the daily prices of a stock on 20 and 21 January are 90 and 100 respectively, then what is the daily rate of return?
(A) 9.9%
(B) 10.10%
(C) 11.11%
(D) 12.12%
45. According to the MM proposition, dividend policy is
(A) correlated
(B) underperformed
(C) relevant
(D) irrelevant
46. In portfolio analysis __________ curves play an important role.
(A) circle
(B) ellipse
(C) parabola
(D) hyperbola
47. If stock prices increases, dividend yield
(A) also increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains same
(D) increases to one and a half
48. According to residual dividend policy, a firm should pay a dividend of all left over when
(A) zero NPV projects have been funded
(B) positive NPV projects have been funded
(C) projects with IRR equal to risk-free interest rate have been funded
(D) projects with IRR greater than risk-free interest rate have been funded
49. The value of probability is always between __________ (inclusive).
(A) –1 and 0
(B) 0 and 1
(C) –1 and 1
(D) none of these
50. The value of correlation is always between __________ (inclusive).
(A) –1 and 0
(B) 0 and 1
(C) –1 and 1
(D) none of these
ANSWERS: CORPORATE FINANCE QUIZZES
41. A
42. A
43. C
44. C
45. D
46. D
47. B
48. B
49. B
50. C

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